But the article states in the last election trump had 48% of the popular vote with Biden at 52%. The polls last time were pretty even at around 50%. If the polls back then were accurate why would they no longer be accurate? Did a disproportionate amount of democrats get rid of land lines vs republican in the last 4 years?
But the article states in the last election trump had 48% of the popular vote with Biden at 52%. The polls last time were pretty even at around 50%. If the polls back then were accurate why would they no longer be accurate? Did a disproportionate amount of democrats get rid of land lines vs republican in the last 4 years?
Different measurements. 52% of who voted, not 52% of registered voters.
72% of registered voters voted 155000 out of 238000. Of those registered voters who voted was who the article referred to.