The witness was allegedly suffering from advanced glaucoma at the time of the crime, severely limiting visibility. Surveillance video from the scene also revealed the eyewitness was much farther away than he initially claimed to be, according to the Exoneration Project.
Legally blind is not the same thing as being totally blind. My brother is “legally blind” but he can see well enough to read and drive a car. Still you have to wonder why the court didn’t take this into consideration at the time - what was motivating the judge to overlook this fact and allow this man to be incarcerated on the basis of flawed eyewitness testimony? Someone had this court’s short hairs in their grips.
The article says that the witness said that he was much closer than the cameras on site showed he actually was.
Also in the article, there’s the issue that CPD told others to identify Harris or else. One of them already recanted their statements.
So what does it means “Legally blind” if he can drive and read? What’s the threshold to be considered legally blind?
Found this definition;
You can be legally blind with tunnel vision, i.e. you can see directly ahead, but nothing out of the corner of your eye.
That sound dangerous when doing something other than reading. Even walking could be a problem without having peripheral view.
Majority of eyewitness testimony is inaccurate. That alone should never have been enough to convict, much less from someone with legitimately terrible eyesight.
I agree, I mean given that the eye witness wasn’t even that close to see what happened, that should have raised flags about the veracity of what said they saw. And having a vision problem complicates it even further. Being legally blind doesn’t mean you necessarily can’t see what’s happening, but it should put your testimony under further scrutiny.
I haven’t fact checked this, but I have a friend who claims he is legally blind without his glasses, but can see fine with his glasses.