• NeatNit@discuss.tchncs.de
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    9 months ago

    I don’t think Planck length is a “minimum distance step” the way you imply it is. IIRC it’s a theoretical minimum uncertainty range, or something like that. But honestly I’m not really in the know about this whole subfield so I could be wrong.

    But if we take this as fact - there exists a minimum distance step - then that means there can only ever be finitely many intermediate steps and the paradox is resolved.

    • Gabu@lemmy.world
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      9 months ago

      I don’t think Planck length is a “minimum distance step” the way you imply it is. IIRC it’s a theoretical minimum uncertainty range

      They’re effectively the same thing. Subatomic theories will never represent the real universe, only the information parallel we can construct with human thought. It’s why there are countless different hypothesis for the quantum wave function, and why things could just as easily be explained by string theory instead. We can never know how the fabric of reality functions, so an insurmountable gap in our ability to ascertain a difference between two values means they may as well be exactly the same.

      then that means there can only ever be finitely many intermediate steps and the paradox is resolved.

      Only if the minimum scalar difference in time is equal to or greater than the minumum scalar difference in space (which we know shouldn’t be true, because of the speed of light). As I wrote in my other reply, “if you measure the object’s position between steps, its position will be at an origin point, but because we’ve now collapsed the wave function, that position is manifested as reality and no other possibilities exist. As a result, a new time-step must pass before it can move — yet, if we measure again, the same observation will be repeated, so the wave function never gets to the target, even though we have declared that the wave function (and therefore the particle) is moving from origin to target.”