- cross-posted to:
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- [email protected]
- cross-posted to:
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cross-posted from: https://sh.itjust.works/post/26302348
cross-posted from: https://sh.itjust.works/post/26302348
COOL, cool…. Hay why was the exact opposite ruled for apple?
The biggest reason is most likely that the cases had different judges.
Apple produces hardware for their walled garden, whereas Google imposes their terms on third parties. I can’t speak to how this works legally, but thats the main difference as far as I understand.
It’s no longer an excuse for Apple. Since the EU’s ruling they now have to allow third party stores there: https://support.apple.com/en-us/118110 and of course they’ll fight tooth and nail against it here, the infrastructure exists so many of their previous arguments around not doing it are moot
Cool, that’s great news for Apple users
How the judges see it:
Google forces conditions onto other OEMs. They have to include a bunch of Google stuff on their phones if they want the play store and play services, which they realistically need, that’s just a market reality. They have no real choice but to do whatever Google says. Google is abusing their market dominance to push their ecosystem, and the OEMs have no real choice but to play ball.
Apple doesn’t force anybody else to use their products. They make their own ecosystem for their own phone. If iOS was available on non-Apple devices, and Apple was forcing stuff onto those OEMs knowing they have little other choice, Apple would be getting the same treatment.
Would like to know the answer, but feel like I already know.
Does that answer have anything to do with the great vehicular hobo massacre of 1988?
No?
You’d be surprised how often it’s relevant, but kept virtually a secret.