It’s somewhat tricky, it refers to ‘the people’ or ‘persons’, but some things don’t make sense if you apply it to non-citizens. There’s been cases to establish how it applies in regards to specific amendments, but I haven’t heard of something coming up that definitively established whether that applies for the right to assemble.
It’s somewhat tricky, it refers to ‘the people’ or ‘persons’, but some things don’t make sense if you apply it to non-citizens. There’s been cases to establish how it applies in regards to specific amendments, but I haven’t heard of something coming up that definitively established whether that applies for the right to assemble.
The first amendment says “Congress shall make no law / abridging the freedom of speech.”
Who speaks is not a factor.