If swiping documents and selling them to foreign governments is an official act, and the Court seems to believe it should be assumed that, then i don’t see why not.
The one act outside of the explicit constitutional powers that they gave absolute immunity to was him communicating with his Justice Department. So it 100% would be.
I wonder if Watergate would have been an official act according to this new doctrine.
It definitely would have been called that, absolutely.
If swiping documents and selling them to foreign governments is an official act, and the Court seems to believe it should be assumed that, then i don’t see why not.
The one act outside of the explicit constitutional powers that they gave absolute immunity to was him communicating with his Justice Department. So it 100% would be.