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(archived link)
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(archived link)
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(archived link)
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(archived link)
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(archived link)
Is the statement that there is no objective truth objectively true? If so, there is some objective truth, and the statement is false. Like I said, it’s a self-defeating claim.
We solved this a century ago with set theory.
What does set theory have to do with absolute truth? And if there is no absolute truth, how can any aspect of set theory be valid?
Might wanna brush up on your epistemology. These are middle school tier arguments.
It’s a simple question. Can you explain? I’m not gonna go and substantiate your argument for you.
I can, but I won’t. This is no longer an entertaining use of my time. I’m not going to explain the implications of Gödel’s Incompleteness Theorem to someone with such a shaky grasp of epistemology. Pearls before swine.
It’s odd that you won’t explain your epistemology to someone, but you will claim moral/intellectual superiority in not explaining an actually important point after debating them on the hypothetical sentience of the sun for over a day. You can throw all the names of theorems you want at a conversation. but the simple fact is that “there is no absolute truth” is a self-contradictory statement. Any philosophy you build on such a fragile foundation is a non-starter.
Which is precisely why I’m not going to explain epistemology to someone who has repeatedly demonstrated poor logical methodology.
I can’t control what you believe at the end of the day, but I will encourage you not to believe in claims that are fundamental logical contradictions. You deserve better than that from yourself. In any case, have a good rest of the week.