the United States expanded the geographic scope of its actions beyond traditional area of operations, Central America and the Caribbean. Significant operations included the United States and United Kingdom–planned 1953 Iranian coup d’état, the 1961 Bay of Pigs Invasion targeting Cuba, and support for the overthrow of Sukarno by General Suharto in Indonesia. In addition, the U.S. has interfered in the national elections of countries, including Italy in 1948,[1] the Philippines in 1953, Japan in the 1950s and 1960s[2][3] Lebanon in 1957,[4] and Russia in 1996.[5] According to one study, the U.S. performed at least 81 overt and covert known interventions in foreign elections during the period 1946–2000.[6] According to another study, the U.S. engaged in 64 covert and six overt attempts at regime change during the Cold War.
Neither of those countries returned to a feudal system. Where are the nobles, with entrenched legal privileges, with titles passed down on a hereditary basis, commanding their own armies? What a ridiculous claim.
Except the transitional stage often leads right back to fudalism/oligarchy.
Capitalism is an oligarchy
Somewhat, but democratic capitalism is a whole lot less oligarchical than straight up oligarchy.
Capitalism cannot be democratic. It’s better than feudalism, but ultimately serves Capitalists.
https://www.forbes.com/real-time-billionaires/#50e831793d78
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Citizens_United_v._FEC
Again, how does what you linked connect to what I said?
Lmao, “democratic capitalism”. Bro thats socialism.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_States_involvement_in_regime_change
also ‘fudalism’ is a funny typo considering this is F.U.D. about socialism and communism
I don’t get how what you linked relates to what I said. Could you clarify?
How does that information inform whether the revolution and dictatorship of the proletariat tends to lead to socialism or back to oligarchy.
Name one time when that’s happened.
USSR and China
Neither of those countries returned to a feudal system. Where are the nobles, with entrenched legal privileges, with titles passed down on a hereditary basis, commanding their own armies? What a ridiculous claim.
That’s why I said /oligarchy. Both became oligarchys.
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Feudalism specifically would be more north Korea.
Does North Korea have the noble class I described? Do you have any evidence that such a class exists?
Yeah, it has a king and royal family.
That’s both not true and also not what I asked. The UK has a king and noble family, does that make it a feudal system?
Mostly not because they don’t have the political power.
Elmer Fudalism
Does it? Is Oligarchy just when you have a government but no or little Capitalism?