• JohnDClay
    338·
    7 个月前

    Except the transitional stage often leads right back to fudalism/oligarchy.

      • JohnDClay
        116·
        7 个月前

        I don’t get how what you linked relates to what I said. Could you clarify?

        • culprit@lemmy.mlOP
          54·
          7 个月前

          the United States expanded the geographic scope of its actions beyond traditional area of operations, Central America and the Caribbean. Significant operations included the United States and United Kingdom–planned 1953 Iranian coup d’état, the 1961 Bay of Pigs Invasion targeting Cuba, and support for the overthrow of Sukarno by General Suharto in Indonesia. In addition, the U.S. has interfered in the national elections of countries, including Italy in 1948,[1] the Philippines in 1953, Japan in the 1950s and 1960s[2][3] Lebanon in 1957,[4] and Russia in 1996.[5] According to one study, the U.S. performed at least 81 overt and covert known interventions in foreign elections during the period 1946–2000.[6] According to another study, the U.S. engaged in 64 covert and six overt attempts at regime change during the Cold War.

          • JohnDClay
            74·
            7 个月前

            How does that information inform whether the revolution and dictatorship of the proletariat tends to lead to socialism or back to oligarchy.

        • OBJECTION!@lemmy.ml
          149·
          7 个月前

          Neither of those countries returned to a feudal system. Where are the nobles, with entrenched legal privileges, with titles passed down on a hereditary basis, commanding their own armies? What a ridiculous claim.

          • JohnDClay
            96·
            7 个月前

            That’s why I said /oligarchy. Both became oligarchys.

          • JohnDClay
            310·
            7 个月前

            Feudalism specifically would be more north Korea.

            • OBJECTION!@lemmy.ml
              86·
              7 个月前

              Does North Korea have the noble class I described? Do you have any evidence that such a class exists?

                • OBJECTION!@lemmy.ml
                  75·
                  7 个月前

                  That’s both not true and also not what I asked. The UK has a king and noble family, does that make it a feudal system?

                  • JohnDClay
                    67·
                    7 个月前

                    Mostly not because they don’t have the political power.